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Post by Steve Noel on Feb 7, 2006 16:27:26 GMT -5
Alright theologians I have a challenging question for you: Can God Be Wrong? Of course the immediate answer is no, but how would you handle this text with integrity? "During the reign of King Josiah, the LORD said to me, "Have you seen what faithless Israel has done? She has gone up on every high hill and under every spreading tree and has committed adultery there. I thought that after she had done all this she would return to me but she did not, and her unfaithful sister Judah saw it." -Jer 3:6 This text says that God thought something would happen that didn't happen. Was God wrong? How would you answer if confronted with this on the street? Note: This is not intended to be a Calvinism/Arminianism topic. Steve
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Post by ejuliot on Feb 7, 2006 16:46:47 GMT -5
You don't have that problem in the King James...
Jer 3:6 The LORD said also unto me in the days of Josiah the king, Hast thou seen that which backsliding Israel hath done? she is gone up upon every high mountain and under every green tree, and there hath played the harlot. Jer 3:7 And I said after she had done all these things, Turn thou unto me. But she returned not. And her treacherous sister Judah saw it.
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Post by Steve Noel on Feb 7, 2006 17:05:43 GMT -5
I don't know the original languages to verify what is the correct rendering here. Green's literal translation " And after she had done all these, I said, She will return to Me; but she did not return. And her treacherous sister Judah saw it." New American Standard Bible"I thought, 'After she has done all these things she will return to Me'; but she did not return, and her teacherous sister Judah saw it." English Standard Version"And I thought, 'After she has done all this she will return to me,' but she did not return, and her treacherous sister Judah saw it." Those of you who accept these translations, how do you deal with this passage?
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Post by josh on Feb 7, 2006 23:00:53 GMT -5
From what I have seen of the Hebrew the KJV has it most accuarate.
The NKJV reads: "And I said, after she had done all these things, 'Return to Me.' But she did not return. And her treacherous sister Judah saw it."
God didn't make a mistake, He wasn't wrong. He called them to Repentence, but they choose to go on sinning
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Post by Kerrigan on Feb 7, 2006 23:10:24 GMT -5
I will just have to look at the Hebrew when I get a chance...I will let you know when I do...
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Post by ejuliot on Feb 9, 2006 15:35:14 GMT -5
Just curious Steve what do you think about this ? God bless!
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Post by Steve Noel on Feb 9, 2006 16:30:01 GMT -5
I'm not really sure. I think it's usually said that God here was not wrong but was speaking in a way that we could understand.
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Post by Rodgers on Feb 21, 2006 21:15:30 GMT -5
I think it ultimately shows that God does have hope for mankind. God said he thought they would return. This passage shows God having a positive thought regarding Israel. They obviously did not forsake their sin and this made God upset. Remember God made us in His image. God gets angry, sad, joyful, pleased and upset. Sometimes when we as Christians tend to focus on God being able to predict the future. What we need to do is meditate on how and what God is doing today. Paul says, "today is the day of salvation!"
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Post by biblethumper on Apr 24, 2006 11:23:38 GMT -5
I'm KJO hehehe so ... ya know
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Post by darcfollowingjesus on Apr 24, 2006 14:24:11 GMT -5
Alright theologians I have a challenging question for you: Can God Be Wrong? Of course the immediate answer is no, but how would you handle this text with integrity? "During the reign of King Josiah, the LORD said to me, "Have you seen what faithless Israel has done? She has gone up on every high hill and under every spreading tree and has committed adultery there. I thought that after she had done all this she would return to me but she did not, and her unfaithful sister Judah saw it." -Jer 3:6 This text says that God thought something would happen that didn't happen. Was God wrong? How would you answer if confronted with this on the street? Note: This is not intended to be a Calvinism/Arminianism topic. Steve All translations are saying basically the same. I don't know how to answer this question you bring up but I will study. (Sidebar question) Does this scripture fly in the face of Calvin's Predestination doctrine?
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