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Post by logic on Oct 30, 2009 10:17:11 GMT -5
I would like some of y'alls opinion on this one.
Adam and Eve had iniquity in their hearts prior to eating the fruit. The had: 1: the lust of the flesh 2: the lust of the eyes 3: the pride of life,
1: good for food, and that it was 2: pleasant to the eyes. and a tree to be 3: desired to make one wise
The only reason that they did not sin in their iniquity is because there was no written law against lust or anything about pride.
I'm only starting to form my thoughts on this, so I'm asking feed back from People who I think may have a good mind to this.
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Post by benjoseph on Nov 1, 2009 17:29:35 GMT -5
I thought about this too. Eve did not sin by seeing that the fruit was good for this and that. She only sinned when she chose to selfishly serve those good desires.
The desires for food, beauty, and wisdom are natural and good desires. They only become avenues of iniquity when a person serves those desires at the expense of loving God and others. There can be a natural "lust" of the flesh which you only gratify lawfully as opposed to a sinful lust of the flesh which is a choice to make your natural "lust" an idol in your heart. If the "lust of the flesh" is iniquity then it must involve a choice. It cannot be just our natural desires/lusts.
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Post by Jeffrey Olver on Nov 3, 2009 17:22:27 GMT -5
I agree with benjoseph.
I think the sin came in her acting upon those desires in a disobedient way.
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